Btech Railways, Waterway and Airport Engineering KCE-070 Aktu Short Question, Notes Pdf

Study the B.Tech AKTU Quantum Book Short Question Notes on Railways, Waterways, and Airport Engineering. Dive into transportation infrastructure and design fundamentals, as well as modern transportation systems.

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Important Questions For Railways, Waterway and Airport Engineering:
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Unit-I: Introduction to Permanent Way and its Components (Short Question)

Q1. Compare different modes of transport with reference to any two geometric design elements.

Ans. 

Q2. What are the requirements of permanent way formation ?  

Ans. Following are the basic requirements of permanent way: 

• i. The gauge should be correct and uniform. 
• ii. The rails should be in proper level. 
• iii. The alignment should be free from kinks or irregularities. 

Q3. What are the components of a permanent way ?

Ans. Following are the components of permanent way:

• i. Rails.
• ii. Sleepers. 
• iii. Fasteners. 
• iv. Ballast. 
• v. Subgrade. 

Q4. What do you mean by rails ? 

Ans. Rails are steel girders that provide a hard and smooth surface for the wheels of locomotives and railway vehicles to run on. 

Q5. Give classification of rails. 

Ans. Following are the types of rails: 

• i. Double headed rails (DH rails). 
• ii. Bull headed rails (BH rails). 
• iii. Flat footed rails (FF rails). 

Q6. Define the term gauge. 

Ans. The clear space between the inner or running faces of two track rails is defined as the gauge of a railway track. The wheel gauge is the distance between the inner sides of two wheels. 

Q7. How many gauges exist in Indian Railways? Give their widths and route kilometers. 

Ans. Following are the types of rail gauge are:

Q8. What is meant by ‘track modulus’ ? Indicate its usual range of values for a broad gauge track.  

Ans. Track modulus is defined as the amount of force required per unit length of rail to cause a unit depression or deflection in the track. For BG track, it ranges from 300 kg/em/cm to 380 kg/cm/em. 

Q9. Why is it advisable to have narrow railway gauge in mountainous country ?

Ans. Due to features such as heavier bridges, larger tunnels, bends with larger radii, and so on, the cost of a BG or MG railway track will be prohibitively expensive in mountainous area. In such instances, in mountainous terrain, the narrow gauge is used. 

Q10. Discuss defects in rails.  

Ans. Following are the various types of defect in rails: 

• i. Crushed head. 
• ii. Transverse fissure.  
• iii. Split head. 
• iv. Horizontal fissure.  
• v. Square or angular breaks. 

Q11. Define creep of rails. 

Ans. The longitudinal movement of rails in a track is referred to as creep. It happens for a variety of causes. If the ballast is insufficient to hold the rails, the effect of creep tends to drag the track.  

Q12. Define the term buckling of rails. 

Ans. Buckling indicates that the track has deviated from its initial position or alignment as a result of temperature variations preventing rail expansion in hot weather.  

Q13. What do you mean by coning of wheels? 

Ans. The wheels are coned at a 1 in 20 slope to minimise friction on the inside face of the rail head and lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. This is known as wheel coning.  

Q14. Write down the advantages of coning of wheels. 

Ans. Following are the advantages of coning of wheels: 

• i. To extend the life of the wheel flanges and rails. 
• ii. To allow for lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. 
• iii. To some extent, to keep the wheels from slipping. 

Q15. Define locomotive. 

Ans. It is a device that converts the chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy of motion. Water and coal, petroleum, or electricity can all be used as fuel. 

Q16. List the merits of electric traction. 

Ans. Following are the merits of electric traction: 

• i. There is no wear on rails or rolling stock when electric propulsion is used. 
• ii. Electric traction trains can accelerate quickly and maintain high speeds because to increased power, uniform torque, and tractive effort. 
• iii. Electric traction has a thermal efficiency that is more than double that of steam traction. 

Q17. What do you mean by fish plates ?

Ans. These plates, which resemble fish in shape, are utilised to establish continuity between the two rails at rail joints. They also offer the necessary spacing for rail expansion and contraction due to temperature fluctuations. They are constructed of steel.

Q18. Define spikes.  

Ans. The Spikes are used to secure rails to wooden sleepers. Spikes of various varieties are widely used to secure hat footed rails.  

Q19. Define the term keys. 

Ans. Keys are the tapered pieces of timber or steel to fix the rails to the chairs on metal sleepers. 

Q20. Define sleepers. 

Ans. Sleepers are the members that are put transversely under the rails to support the rails and transfer the load from rails to ballast. 

Q21. Discuss adzing of sleepers.  

Ans. To provide a cant of 1 to 20, hardwood sleepers must be cut to this slope at the rail seat. Adzing of sleepers refers to the procedure of cutting the wooden sleeper at a slope of 1 in 20. 

Q22. Discuss the classification of sleepers. 

Ans. Following are the classification of sleepers:

• i. Wooden sleepers. 
• ii. Metal sleepers:                
  • a. Cast iron sleepers.                   
  • b. Steel sleepers. 
• iii. Concrete sleepers:
  • a. Reinforced concrete sleepers. 
  • b. Prestressed concrete sleepers. 

Q23. Give the advantages and disadvantages of timber sleeper. 

Ans. Advantages: 

• i. Timber is easily available in all parts of India. 
• ii. Fittings for wooden sleepers are few and simple in design. 

Disadvantages : 

• i. It is difficult to maintain the gauge in case of wooden sleepers. 
• ii. Track is easily disturbed, i.e., alignment maintenance is difficult. 

Q24. Write down advantages and disadvantages of concrete sleepers. 

Ans. Advantages: 

• i. These sleepers are free of natural deterioration and attacks by vermin, insects, and other pests. 
• ii. It is not influenced by moisture, the chemical action of ballast, cinder, or subsoil salt. 

Disadvantages: 

• i. The weight of a concrete sleeper is 2.5 to 3 times that of a wooden sleeper, necessitating the use of mechanical devices for handling. 
• ii. These sleepers require pads and plugs for spikes. 

Q25. What do you understand by sleeper density ?  

Ans. Sleeper density represents the number of sleepers per rail length (in meters). 

Q26. What are the requirements of a good ballast ?

Ans. Following are the requirements of a good ballast: 

• i. It should resist crushing under dynamic loads. 
• ii. It should be tough and wear resistant. 
• iii. It should be generally cubical with sharp edges. 

Q27. What ballast material would you suggest for high-speed tracks and why ?

Ans. Broken stone ballast is used for high speed track because it possess following properties:

• i. Hard and durable when procured from hard rocks. 
• ii. Good drainage properties. 
• iii. Stable and resilient to the track. 
• iv. Economical in the long run. 

Unit-II: Railway Track Geometry (Short Question)

Q1. What do you mean by railway alignment ?

Ans. The track alignment is the direction and position of the railway track’s centre line on the ground.  

Q2. Illustrate the basic requirements of good alignment. 

Ans. An ideal alignment should fulfill the following purposes:

• i. Purpose of track. 
• ii. Feasibility. 
• iii. Economy. 
• iv. Safety.  
• v. Aesthetic aspects. 

Q3. Define gradient. 

Ans. Any deviation of the railway track from the level is referred to as a grade or gradient. When the track rises in the direction of motion, it is called an up gradient; when the track falls below in the direction of motion, it is called a down gradient. 

Q4. When would you recommend ‘Pusher Gradient’ in railway tracks ? 

Ans. If the grade is concentrated in a specific section, such as a mountainous section, it may be easier or even more cost effective to run the train on the basis of load, with that engine carrying on the remaining portion of track and arranging for an assisting engine (or pusher engine or a banking engine) for the portion where the gradient is severe. These gradients are referred to as “Pusher” or “Helper” gradients. 

Q5. What do you mean by grade compensation ?

Ans. Wherever curve and gradient must be presented jointly, the amount of gradient is lowered. Grade compensation on curves refers to the reduction in grade. 

Q6. Explain superelevation. 

Ans. To offset the effect of centrifugal force, the outer rail is raised slightly above the inner rail to introduce centripetal force. Superelevation refers to the higher elevation of the outer rail over the inner rail at a horizontal curve.  

Q7. Illustrate the objects of providing superelevation. 

Ans. Following are the objects of providing superelevation:

• i. Use centripetal force to counterbalance the effect of centrifugal force.
• ii. To distribute wheel loads evenly across two rails. 
• iii. To offer an even and smooth running track to guarantee passengers have a comfortable trip.  

Q8. Define the term cant deficiency. 

Ans. The equilibrium cant is calculated using the average speed of the trains on the track. This equilibrium cant or superelevation will be insufficient for speeds greater than average speed. Cant deficit refers to a lack of cant. 

Q9. What are the necessity of curves ? 

Ans. Following are the necessity of curves: 

• i. To bypass the natural or artificial obstacles. 
• ii. To provide easier gradients by diversions from the straight route. 
• iii. To route the line through areas having traffic potentialities. 

Q10. When horizontal curves are provided ?

Ans. Horizontal bends are provided anytime the direction of the track’s alignment changes. They are typically circular in shape, having parabolic transition curves at each end.  

Q11. What do you mean by vertical curves ?

Ans. These are delivered anytime the gradient changes, i.e., when a rising gradient becomes a decreasing gradient or vice versa. 

Q12. Discuss transition curves. 

Ans. Transition curve is defined as a curve of parabolic nature which is introduced between a straight and a circular curve. 

Q13. What are the requirements of a transition curves ?

Ans. Following are the requirements of a transition curves: 

• i. It must be completely tangential to the straight. 
• ii. The length of the transition curve should be chosen so that curvature increases in proportion to superelevation. 
• iii. This curve should tangentially intersect the circular arc. 

Q14. Define turnouts.  

Ans. A turnout is the most basic combination of points and crossings that allows one track, either a branch line or a siding, to depart from another. The goal of a turnout is to permit safe movement of trains in either direction on both tracks. 

Q15. Define the term switch. 

Ans. A railway switch is a mechanical device that guides railway trains from one track to another, such as at a railway junction. 

Q16. Write down various types of switches.  

Ans. Follows are the types of switches: 

• i. Stub switch. 
• ii. Split switch.  

Q17. What is the purpose of providing wing rails ?

Ans. Wing rails assist in channelling the wheels in the right paths and directions for movement. These rails direct the wheel path of trains as they move. 

Q18. Write down the classification of crossings. 

Ans. Crossings are classified as follows: 

• i. On the basis of shape of crossing: 
  • a. Acute angle crossing. 
  • b. Obtuse angle crossing.
  • c. Square crossing.
• ii. On the basis of assembly of crossing: 
  • a. Spring or movable wing crossing. 
  • b. Ramped crossing. 

Q19. What are the components of crossing?

Ans. Following are the components of crossing: 

• i. A crossing or vee piece. 
• ii. Point and splice rails. 
• iii. Wing rails. 
• iv. Check rails. 
• v. Chairs at crossing. 
• vi. Blocks at throat. 

Q20. Write down the characteristics of a good crossing. 

Ans. Following are the characteristics of a good crossing: 

• i. A crossing assembly must be rigid in order to withstand strong vibrations. 
• ii. The wear on the wing rails opposite the nose, as well as the nose itself, must be preserved. 
• iii. For practical reasons, the nose of the crossing should be thicker. 

Q21. Discuss the necessity of points and crossings. 

Ans. Following are the necessity of points and crossings: 

• i. Points and crossings allow for movement flexibility by connecting one line to another. 
• ii. They also aid in placing restrictions on turnouts, which must necessarily slow movement. 

Q22. What do you mean by crossing clearance ? 

Ans. Crossing clearance is the clear distance between the wing rail and the crossing rail. This clearance is theoretically the same as the clearance at the throat, although in practise it is significantly larger.

Q23. What are the types of yards ?

Ans. Following are the types of yards:

• i. Passenger bogie yards.
• ii. Goods yards. 
• iii. Marshalling yards. 
• iv. Locomotive yards. 

Q24. What are the station yards ?

Ans. Yard is a system of tracks laid within set limitations for various functions such as storing, sorting, dispatching and building up trains. Vehicle movement in yards is not authorized by a timetable. 

Q25. What do you mean by locomotive yard ?

Ans. Locomotive yards are where locomotives are stored, repaired, and where coaling, watering, maintenance, and service are performed.

Q26. How the railway stations are classified ?  

Ans. Types of Station: 

• i. Operational Classification: Indian railways classify the station in following classes:
  • a. Block stations, Class-A, Class-B and Class-C station in descending.
  • b. Non block station, Class-D stations and flag stations.
  • c. Special class stations.
• ii. Functional Classification: Based on their functions, stations are classified as below: 
  • a. None junction or wayside station.
  • b. Junction station.
  • c. Terminal station. 

Q27. Define junction station.  

Ans. When two or more railway lines intersect at a station, it is referred to as a junction station. The lines can be of the same or different gauges.

Q28. What are the factors affecting site selection for railway stations ?

Ans. Following are the factor affecting site selection for railways stations:

• i. Acquisition of land. 
• ii. Proximity to town or village. 
• iii. Nature of land area. 
• iv. Site drainage. 
• v. Station amenities.  

Q29. What is level crossing ?

Ans. When the railway line and a road cross each other at the same level, it is known as level crossing.  

Q30. State the position of sleepers at points and crossings. 

Ans. Normally, sleepers are perpendicular to the track. A points and crossings, a situation arises in which the sleepers must cater to both the main line and the turnout portion of the track. Longer sleepers are utilised for this purpose along various sections of the track. 

Q31. What does crossing in a railway track mean ? What are its essential requirements ?

Ans. A crossing happens when one rail crosses another. Thus, it is a mechanism installed at the intersection of two rails to allow cars travelling along one track to cross the other track. 

Unit-III: Signalling and Interlocking (Short Question)

Q1. What are the objectives of signalling ?

Ans. Following are the objectives of signalling:

• i. To keep a safe spacing between trains travelling in the same direction on the same line. 
• ii. To assure the safety of two or more trains crossing or approaching each other. 
• iii. To offer safe and effective shunting facilities, etc.

Q2. Describe the semaphore signals. 

Ans. The term ‘semaphore’ was coined by a Greek historian. The word ‘sema’ means sign, while the word ‘phor’ means to bear. A semaphore signal is made out of a movable arm that is pivoted on a vertical post through a horizontal pin. 

Q3. Define hand signals

Ans. These signals take the form of flags (red or green) attached to wooden handles held by railway staff assigned to this job.

Q4. Classify the railway signals. 

Ans. Following are the two types of railway signals: 

• i. Audible signals. 
• ii. Fixed or visible signals.  

Q5. Classify the signals according to location. 

Ans. The signals are classified as follows depending upon their location: 

• i. Outer signal. 
• ii. Starter signal. 
• iii. Home signal. 
• iv. Advance starter signal. 

Q6. State the purpose of shunting signals. 

Ans. A shunting signal regulates low-speed movements where a main signal is not available, such as moves in sidings. It is used to control vehicle shunting in the station yard. 

Q7. Give the location of reception signals with neat sketch. 

Ans. 

Q8. Write down the methods adopted for control of movements of trains. 

Ans. Following are the methods adopted for control of movements of trains: 

• i. Following trains system. 
• ii. Absolute block system. 
• iii. Automatic signalling. 
• iv. Pilot guard system. 
• v. Centralized traffic control system, etc.  

Q9. Define the term ATS.  

Ans. ATS stands for automatic train halt. To prevent accidents, ATS is a system aboard a railway that automatically stops the train if certain conditions occur (unresponsive train operator, earthquake, disconnected rail, train passing over a stop signal, etc.). 

Q10. What are the advantages of the CTC system ?

Ans. Following are the major advantages of the CTC system: 

• i. There is a significant reduction in the amount of time it takes trains to complete a run, and as a result, the section’s line capacity is increased. 
• ii. At the numerous stations, no trained station masters, point’s men, or the like are necessary. 
• iii. The system is capable of detecting any flaws in the track. 

Q11. Discuss the term interlocking. 

Ans. Interlocking is a mechanism or system that ensures train safety. With the expansion of points and signals, as well as the introduction of high speeds, it has become vital to eliminate human error, which would otherwise result in significant losses of life and property.

Q12. Enumerate different methods of interlocking.

Ans. Following are the three methods of interlocking: 

• i. Tappets and locks system. 
• ii. Key system. 
• iii. Route relay system.  

Q13. What are the essential regulations of interlocking ? 

Ans. Following are the essential regulations of interlocking: 

• i. Before turning off the signals, the line should be completely isolated, which means that no loose waggons should be able to enter it. 
• ii. It should not be feasible to switch off two signals at the same time, as this could result in competing train movements. 
• iii. The points should be linked whenever possible to prevent any conflicting movement. 

Q14. What are the advantages of underground railways ?

Ans. Following are the advantages of underground railways: 

• i. Because there are no road crossings or other comparable issues, trains can operate quickly and unhindered in an underground railway system. 
• ii. Because trains travel at such high speeds, underground railways can handle a high concentration of human traffic. 
• iii. Protects against aerial attacks, notably during wartime. 

Q15. Write a short note on MRTS.  

Ans. The Mass Rapid Transit System, often known as MRTS, is in high demand for the growth of metropolitan areas all over the world. MRTS stands for Mass fast Transit System. Mass is described as a huge volume or number, such as a large group of people, and fast indicates swift transportation from one location to another. As a result, MRTS moves a huge number of people from one location to another as quickly as possible, stopping almost every 2-3 minutes. Trams, metros, and monorails are examples. 

Unit-IV: Airport Engineering (Short Question)

Q1. Write down the characteristics of a conventional type aircraft. 

Ans. Following are the characteristics of a conventional type aircraft: 

• i. Aircraft capacity. 
• ii. Aircraft speed. 
• iii. Aircraft weight and wheel arrangement. 
• iv. Fuel spilling. 
• v. Jet blast, etc.  

Q2. How can you determine the aircraft capacity ?

Ans. The capacity of an aeroplane determines the number of people, baggage, cargo, and fuel that may be carried. The terminal facilities are designed to accept the largest aircraft that is anticipated to land. 

Q3. Enumerate any four factors which affect the size of an airport.  

Ans. Following are the factors affecting the size of an airport: 

• i. The volume of traffic using the apron.  
• ii. Clearance requirements. 
• iii. Types of ingress and egress to the aircraft stand. 
• iv. Aircraft ground activity requirements. 

Q4. List any four factors considered in site selection for an airport

Ans. Following are the factors which influence the site selection of an airport: 

• i. Atmospheric and meteorological conditions. 
• ii. Availability of land for expansion. 
• iii. Availability of utilities. 
• iv. Development of the surrounding area. 

Q5. Why is a site on top of a hill considered more suitable for locating an airport than that on a valley ?

Ans. A raised ground like a hill top is usually considered to be an ideal site for an airport because of the following fact: 

• i. It grants better visibility due to less fog. 
• ii. It permits easy natural drainage. 
• iii. The approach and turning zones are less obstructed.

Q6. List the components of airport ? 

Ans. Following are the components of airport: 

i Runway.                      ii. Taxiway.            iii. Apron.              iv. Terminal building. 

v. Control tower.            vi. Hanger.            vi. Parking. 

Q7. Describe the steps of runway orientation.

Ans. Following steps are given below: 

i. Preliminary information required.          ii. Head wind. 

iii. Cross wind component.                       iv. Wind coverage.        

 v. Wind rose.  

Q8. Why is landing and take-off operations performed along head winds ? 

Ans. The orientation of runway along the head wind grants the following advantages: 

• i. During landing, it provides a breaking effect and the aircraft comes to a stop in a short length of the runway.
• ii. During take-off it provides greater lift on the wings of the aircrafts. 

Q9. Write down the elements of the geometric standards for taxiway.

Ans. Following are the elements of the geometric standards for taxiway: 

• i. Length of taxiway. 
• ii. Longitudinal gradient. 
• iii. Rate of change of longitudinal gradient. 
• iv. Sight distance. 
• v. Transverse gradient. 
• vi. Turning radius.
• vii. Width of safety area. 
• viii. Width of taxiway. 

Q10. How can you determine the length of taxiway ?  

Ans. The length of a taxiway is determined by the distance between the apron and the runway’s entrance or exit end. No organization recommends limiting the length of the taxiway, however it should be as short as possible to save fuel. 

Q11. Write down the criteria for classifying the airports.

Ans. Following are the criteria for airports classification:

• i. Based on functions. 
• ii. Based on usage or ownership. 
• iii. Based on facilities available. 
• iv. Based on type of aircraft designed to serve.  

Q12. Write down the basie information collected for the regional planning  .

Ans. The following basic information’s are collected for the regional planning: 

• i. The planning period. 
• ii. The geography and topography of the area. 
• iii. The population served. 
• iv. Types of airports. 
• v. Ownership and operation of airports.  

Q13. Write down the methods of traffic forecasting. 

Ans. Following are the methods of traffic forecasting: 

i. Trend extrapolation method.                   ii. Mechanical method. 

iii. Category analysis method.                    iv. Market research method. 

v. Analytical method.                                  vi. Econometric method. 

Q14. Write down the various steps involving in selection of suitable site for airports. 

Ans. Following are the various steps involving in selection of suitable site for airports: 

• i. Requirement of land area. 
• ii. Evaluation of factors affecting airport location. 
• iii. Preliminary office study of possible sites. 
• iv. Site inspection. 
• v. Environmental study, etc. 

Q15. What are the requirements for drainage system in airports ?

Ans. Following are the requirements for drainage system is airports: 

i. Removal of surface water. 

ii. Diversion of surface and ground water from adjacent areas. 

iii. Removal of sub-surface flow of water from the airport. 

Q16. Give the types of airport markings. 

Ans. Following are types of airport markings: 

• i. Runway markings. 
• ii. Taxiway markings. 

Q17. Enumerates the markings used on taxiways.

Ans. Following are the markings used on taxiways: 

• i. Taxiway centreline marking. 
• ii. Taxiway edge marking. 
• iii. Holding position markings on taxiway. 
• iv. Taxiways shoulder markings. 
• v. Geographic position markings.

Q18. Give the types of light fixtures and supports used at the airports. 

Ans. Two types of light fixtures and supports are used at the airports: 

• i. Elevated lights. 
• ii. Surface lights. 

Q19. Define the term heliport.

Ans. Heliports are areas of land, sea, or structures designed to be utilised for helicopter takeoff and landing, as well as apartment complexes and facilities.  

Q20. Discuss the points should be remember from the selection of the site for a heliport in an urban area. 

Ans. Following points should be kept in mind: 

• i. It should be positioned in a high-traffic area. 
• ii. Surface transit should be well connected, and parking should be available. 
• iii. The cost of obtaining and developing land for a heliport should be kept as low as possible. 
• iv. The site’s visibility should be high. Tall buildings, fog, and other impediments are not an issue. 

Q21. Enumerate the components of a heliport.

Ans. Following are the main components of a heliport: 

• i. Final approach and take off-area (FATO). 
• ii. Touchdown and lift-off area (TLOF). 
• iii. Safety area. 
• iv. Approach/take-off surface. 
• v. Taxi route and taxiways. 
• vi. Helicopter parking areas, etc. 

Q22. What are the functions of the runways ? 

Ans. Following are the functions of the runways: 

• i. To avoid delays in landing, taxing, and takeoff operations, as well as to cause the least amount of interference in these activities. 
• ii. Provide the lowest taxi distance possible from the terminal area to the runway ends. 
• iii. Provide appropriate taxiways so that landing aircraft can depart the runways as fast as feasible and take the shortest possible route to the terminal area. 
• iv. To ensure sufficient separation in the air traffic pattern. 

Q23. Enlist the purposes of air traffic control. 

Ans. Following are the various purposes of air traffic control: 

• i. Safety. 
• ii. Efficiency. 
• iii. Economy. 

Unit-V: Water Transport (Short Question)

Q1. Discuss the inland water transportation. 

Ans. River transportation or canal transportation are two types of inland water transportation. It is worth noting that river transit became popular in our country in 1855, and many commercial cities sprang up along the banks of major rivers such as the Ganga. Certain regulations and guidelines are required for inland water transportation. 

Q2. Classify the water transportation.

Ans. Following are the types of water transportation: 

• i. Inland water transportation. 
• ii. Ocean water transportation.  

Q3. Enumerate any two merits and demerits of water transport.  

Ans. Advantages of Water Transport: 

• i. Water transport has lower operating and maintenance costs than other modes of transportation. 
• ii. Heavy and bulky goods can be conveniently transported using water transport. 

Disadvantages of Water Transport:

• i. It is a slow means of transport. Water Transport 
• ii. It can be used only in a limited area which is served by deep canals and rivers. 

Q4.  Classify the harbours. 

Ans. Depending upon the protection needed, harbours are broadly classified as: 

• i. Natural harbours or natural roadsteads. 
• ii. Semi-natural harbours. 
• iii. Artificial harbours or artificial roadsteads. 

Q5. Explain the natural roadsteads. 

Ans. A natural roadstead is a deep navigable channel with a protecting natural bank or shoal to the seaward. 

Q6. Describe semi-natural harbours.

Ans. These harbours are sheltered on all sides by headlands and require only man-made protection at the entrance.  

Q7. Discuss the artificial harbours. 

Ans. Where such natural facilities are unavailable, countries with a seaboard must design or construct such shelters using engineering skill and procedures; such harbours are known as artificial or man-made harbours. 

Q8. Classify harbours based upon the location.  

Ans. Harbours can be categorized as follows: 

• i. Canal harbours. 
• ii. Lake harbours. 
• iii. River or estuary harbours. 
• iv. Sea or ocean harbours.  

Q9. What are the factors to be considered for site selection of a harbour ?  

Ans. Following are the factors to be considered for site selection of a harbour: 

• i. Availability of cheap land and construction materials. 
• ii. Transport and communication facilities. 
• iii. Natural protection from winds and waves. 
• iv. Industrial development of the locality. 
• v. Defense and strategic aspects, etc. 

Q10. List any four characteristics of vessels influencing the design of a harbour.

Ans. Following are the characteristics of vessels influencing the design of a harbour: 

• i. Types of vessel: (Container, general cargo, tankers, etc.) 
• ii. Weight of vessel. 
• ii. Height of vessel. 
• iv. Length overall.  

Q11. Write down the requirements of a good harbour. 

Ans. Following are the requirements of a good harbour: 

• i. The ship channels, whether natural or artificial, must be deep enough to accommodate the draught of the vessels visiting the port. 
• ii. The bottom should provide secure anchorage to hold the ships against severe winds. 
• iii. To prevent against destructive wave action, land masses or break waters must be provided. 

Q12. What is the function of breakwaters in a harbour ? 

Ans. Following are the function of breakwaters in a harbour:

• i. Provide shelter from waves. 
• ii. Protection from siltation, currents. 
• iii. Tsunami protection. 
• iv. Provide berthing facilities. 

Q13. What do you understand by Littoral Drift ?

                                                  OR

Define littoral drift. 

Ans. Littoral drift refers to the intricate process of moving and depositing drifting sand in a zig-zag pattern along shores. 

Q14. Give the requirements to design the port. 

Ans. Following are the requirements to design the port:

• i. The entrance channel should be such that the ships can come in and go out easily. 
• ii. The ships should be able to turn in the basin itself. 
• ii. The width behind the quay should be sufficient to deal with the goods, etc. 

Q15. Differentiate between port and harbour. 

Ans. 

Q16. Classify the docks. 

Ans. Following are the types of docks: 

• i. Wet docks. 
• ii. Dry docks.

Q17. Define the wet docks. 

Ans. Wet docks are those that are used to berth ships in order to expedite the loading and unloading of passengers and goods. 

Q18. Classify the wet docks. 

Ans. Following are the two types of wet docks: 

• i. Wet docks in tidal basins. 
• ii. Wet docks in enclosed or impounded basins.

Q19. What do you understand by the term dry docks ? 

Ans. The docks are used for repairs of the vessels are known as dry docks. 

Q20. Give the advantages of tidal wet docks. 

Ans. Following are the advantages of tidal wet docks: 

• i. Vessels can enter, berth, and depart at any time. As a result, ships arrive and depart quickly and without restriction. 
• ii. Expensive preparations such as lock gates for shutting doors are not necessary. 

Q21. Write down the disadvantages of tidal wet docks.  

Ans. Following are the disadvantages of tidal wet docks: 

• i. If the tide range is greater, loading and unloading operations are severely hampered. 
• ii. Changes in water level will cause ships’ sides to brush against the berths. 

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